In "have to" and "ought to", "to" is part of the modal verb or the full infinitive that follows?

Question:

Answers:
It's part of the full infinitive that follows.

Believe it or not but 'have to' isn't actually a modal verb. Although it's usage is very similar.

Think of some other modal verbs: can, could, shall, should, must (and the negatives of each one) - we can't put 'to' after them. That's why 'to' is not part of modal verbs in general.

I hope this has helped.

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